Home › Previous Papers › MNRE Scientist B Question Paper with Answers Key

MNRE Scientist B Question Paper with Answers Key

adminPosted on Posted in Previous Papers

MNRE Scientist B Question Paper with Answers Key ( Source: mnre.gov.in)

 Directions (Questions 1-10): Study the passages below to answer the questions that follow each passage.

Passage-I

Saving energy means saving money. Homeowners and renters know this basic fact, but they often don’t know what kinds of adjustments they can make in their homes and apartments that will result in savings. For those willing to spend some time and money to reap long-term energy savings, an energy audit is the way to go. An energy auditor will come into your home and assess its energy efficiency.

The auditor will pinpoint areas of your home that use the most energy and offer solutions to lower your energy use and costs. Trained energy auditors know what to look for and can locate a variety of flaws that may be resulting in energy inefficiency, including inadequate insulation, construction flaws, and uneven heat distribution. There are quicker and less costly measures that can be taken as well. One way to save money is to replace incandescent lights with fluorescents. This can result in a

savings of more than 50% on your monthly lighting costs. When it’s time to replace old appliances, it’s wise to spend a bit more for an energy-efficient model, and be sure that you are taking advantage of energy-saving settings already on your current refrigerator, dishwasher, washing machine, or dryer. Windows provide another opportunity to cut your energy costs. Caulk old windows that might be leaky to prevent drafts, and choose double-paned windows if you’re building an addition or

replacing old windows. Most areas of your home or apartment offer opportunities to save energy and money. The results are significant and are well worth the effort.

  1. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?

(1) There are many things a homeowner or renter can do to save energy and money.

(2) Hiring an energy auditor will save energy and money.

(3) Homeowners and renters don’t know what they can do to save energy and money.

(4) Replacing windows and light bulbs are well worth the effort and cost.

  1. According to the passage, which of the following would an energy auditor NOT do?

(1) Check for construction flaws.

(2) Look for problems with heat distribution.

(3) Offer solutions to lower your energy costs.

(4) Locate a variety of flaws that may result in energy inefficiency and fix them.

  1. According to the passage, double-paned windows

(1) are energy efficient.

(2) should only be used as replacement windows.

(3) should only be used in new additions to homes.

(4) will lower your heating costs by 50%.

A/2K16/05 3

  1. Which two main organizational schemes can be identified in this passage?

(1) Hierarchical order and order by topic.

(2) Order by topic and cause and effect.

(3) Hierarchical order and chronological order.

(4) Chronological order and compare and contrast.

  1. Which of the following ideas is NOT included in this passage?

(1) You can reduce your $130 monthly lighting costs to $65 by using fluorescent bulbs instead of incandescent.

(2) Double-paned windows can cut energy costs.

(3) Your local energy company will send an energy auditor at your request.

(4) Some appliances have energy saving settings.

Passage-II

The atmosphere is a mixture of several gases. There are about ten chemical elements which remain permanently in gaseous form in the atmosphere under all natural conditions. Of these permanent gases, oxygen makes up about 21 percent and nitrogen about 78 percent. Several other gases, such as argon, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, neon, krypton, and xenon, comprise the remaining 1 percent of the volume of dry air. The amount of water vapour, and its variations in amount and distribution, are of

extraordinary importance in weather changes. Atmospheric gases hold in suspension great quantities of dust, pollen, smoke, and other impurities which are always present in considerable, but variable amount. The layer of the air next to the earth, which extends upward for about 16 km, is known as the troposphere. On the whole, it makes up about 75 per cent of all the weight of the atmosphere. It is the warmest part of the atmosphere because most of the solar radiation is absorbed by the earth’s surface,

which warms the air immediately surrounding it. A steady decrease of temperature with increasing elevation is a most striking characteristic. The upper layers are colder because of their great distance from the earth’s surface and rapid radiation of heat into space. The temperatures within the troposphere decrease about 3.5° per 1,000 feet increase in altitude. Within the troposphere, winds and air currents distribute heat and moisture. Strong winds, called jet streams, are located at the upper levels of the troposphere. These jet streams are both complex and widespread in occurrence. They

normally show a wave-shaped pattern and move from west to east at velocities of 240 kmph, but velocities as high as 640 kmph have also been noted. The influences of changing locations and strengths of jet streams upon weather conditions and patterns are no doubt considerable. Above the troposphere to a height of about 80 km is a zone called the stratosphere. The stratosphere is separated from the troposphere by a zone of uniform temperatures called the tropopause. Within the lower portions of the stratosphere is layer of ozone gases which filters out most of the ultraviolet rays from

the sun. The ozone layer varies with air pressure. If this zone were not there, the full blast of the sun’s ultraviolet light would burn our skins, blind our eyes, and eventually result in our destruction. Within the stratosphere, the temperature and atmosphere composition are relatively uniform. The layer upward of about 80 km is the most fascinating but the least known of these three strata. It is called ionosphere because it consists of electrically charged particles called ions, thrown from the sun. Its effect upon weather conditions, if any, is as yet unknown.

  1. This passage does not provide information about the

(1) effect of refrigerants on ozone depletion.

(2) amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.

(3) presence of considerable waste products in the atmosphere.

(4) presence of permanent gases in the atmosphere.

  1. Which of the following questions is/are answered on the basis of information contained in the

passage?

  1. How do the troposphere and the stratosphere differ?
  2. How does the ionosphere affect the weather?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) I only (2) II only (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II

  1. It can be inferred from the passage that at the top of a location which is above 16,000 feet above

a town, the temperature is usually

(1) warmer than that in the town.

(2) about 56° colder than that on the ground.

(3) affected by the ionosphere.

(4) None of these

  1. Life, as we know, exists on the earth because the atmosphere

(1) is warmest at the bottom. (2) carries the ultraviolet rays of the sun.

(3) contains a layer of ozone gases. (4) contains a lot of water vapours.

  1. The troposphere is the warmest part of the atmosphere because it

(1) radiates heat into space.

(2) is warmed by the earth’s heat.

(3) has winds and air currents that distribute the heat.

(4) contains jet streams.

Directions (Questions 11-12): Choose the word nearest in meaning to the underlined part.

  1. The surreptitious movements of a lone figure among the dunes filled the villagers with curiosity

and awe.

(1) invisible (2) concealed (3) secret (4) nocturnal

  1. Sanguine as he is in his attitude to life and its problems, he cannot but be noticed wherever he

goes.

(1) Optimistic (2) Enthusiastic (3) Realistic (4) Dispassionate

A/2K16/05 5

Directions (Questions 13-14): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the underlined

word.

  1. His punctuality and regularity propitiates everyone with whom he deals.

(1) depresses (2) excites (3) enrages (4) appeases

  1. The problem of dowry in our country has assumed gargantuan proportions.

(1) negligible (2) bearable (3) minimal (4) minute

Directions (Questions 15-16): Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined

idiom/phrase in the sentence.

  1. His father advised him to be fair and square in his dealings lest he should fall into trouble.

(1) upright (2) considerate (3) careful (4) polite

  1. He was in a brown study and did not seem to catch my point.

(1) in his study room (2) absorbed in reading

(3) absent-minded (4) in a state of shock

Directions (Questions 17-18): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives,

choose the word which can be substituted for the given words.

  1. Gradual recovery from illness

(1) Hysteria (2) Amnesia (3) Superannuation (4) Convalescence

  1. One who totally abstains from alcoholic drinks

(1) Puritan. (2) Teetotaller (3) Pedant (4) Samaritan.

Directions (Questions 19-20) : Fill in the blanks.

  1. Although the whole team acted in unison, each member was _____ for a/an ______of the

production process.

(1) reliable, source (2) responsible, element

(3) appointed, article (4) agreeable, felony

  1. The studies of the children were _______ and _______ was the cause of it.

(1) neglected, ignorance (2) interrupted, incongruence

(3) off tracked, alienation (4) instructed, genius

Directions (Questions 21-22): Each of these questions has a statement followed by two conclusions I

and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions

follows from the statement. Mark answer as

(1) if conclusion I follows.

(2) if conclusion II follows.

(3) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(4) if both conclusions I and II follow.

  1. Statement: India’s economy is dependent mainly on forests.

Conclusions: I. Trees should be preserved to improve the Indian economy.

  1. India wants only maintenance of forests to improve economic

conditions.

  1. Statement: The best way to escape from a problem is to solve it.

Conclusions: I. Your life will be dull if you don’t face a problem.

  1. To escape from problems, you should always have some solutions

with you.

Directions (Questions 23-24): Read the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Five persons are sitting in a row. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is intelligent and the

other one is fair. A fat person is sitting on the right of a weak person. A tall person is on the left of the

fair person and the weak person is sitting between the intelligent and the fat person.

  1. Which of the following describes the person on the left of the weak person?

(1) Intelligent (2) Fat (3) Fair (4) Tall

  1. If the fair person and the fat person exchange their positions, and so also do the tall and the

weak persons, then who will be sitting on the left of the weak person?

(1) Tall (2) Fat (3) Fair (4) Intelligent

  1. In a certain code language, TUTORIAL is written as DODNGLCF and DANCE is written as

YCJMZ, how can EDUCATION be written in that code?

(1) ZYMODCLNJ (2) ZYOMCDLNJ (3) ZYOMDCLNJ (4) None of these

Directions (Questions 26-30): Study the following Pie-charts to answer these questions.

A State receives a grant of 1,00,000 crore for different development projects. The distribution of

grants for the projects is shown by Pie-chart-A. The grant for each of these projects has to be used for

6 zones of the state. Pie-chart-B shows the percentage distribution of grant in each zone.

A B

  1. The grant for Roads and Drinking water facility taken together in Zone II is ____________ than

the grant for Rail projects and solar energy technology taken together in Zone VI.

(1) more by 33.6% (2) less by 33.6% (3) more by 48% (4) less by 48%

  1. The grant allocated for Agri. related projects in Zone I is __________ than the grant for

Environment related projects in Zone IV.

(1) more by 850 cr. (2) less by 850 cr. (3) more by 2090 cr. (4) less by 2090 cr.

  1. If one-fourth of the grant under Rail projects in Zone III is diverted for solar energy technology

in Zone II, the new grant under Rail projects in Zone III will be _________ than the new grant

under solar energy technology in zone II.

(1) less by 6200 cr. (2) less by 400 cr. (3) more by 400 cr. (4) more by 6200 cr.

  1. By what amount should the grant in Zone VI under drinking water be increased to make the

ratio of distribution in Zone VI and Zone V under drinking water becomes 5:2?

(1) 1105 cr. (2) 1015 cr. (3) 2420 cr. (4) 2240 cr.

  1. Under Environment related projects, the grant in Zone I has to be increased by 4%. In order to

balance this amount a corresponding reduction in the grant for Zone II is to be done. By what

amount should this grant be reduced?

(1) 760 cr. (2) 670 cr. (3) 1710 cr. (4) 1170 cr.

A/2K16/05 10

  1. Parliament building of which one of the following countries in February 2016 became the first

in the world to completely run on solar power?

(1) The UK (2) Japan (3) Pakistan (4) Indonesia

  1. Which is the indigenously developed instrument deployed by the India Meteorology

Department (IMD) that provides real time visibility information to pilots?

(1) JYOTI (2) DRISHTI (3) UDAY (4) UJWAL

  1. Who is the Executive Director of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)?

(1) Christiana Figueres (2) Achim Stainer

(3) Udo Steffens (4) None of these

  1. Which among the following countries was the largest investing country for renewable energy

excluding large hydro with $102.9 billion for the year 2015?

(1) Australia (2) India (3) USA (4) China

  1. Which Asian country is the largest small-distributed-power-market in the world due to still

generous feed-in tariffs and falling PV system costs?

(1) India (2) China (3) Japan (4) Thailand

  1. Re-Invest 2015, the first Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet and Expo has taken place in

New Delhi in __________ 2015.

(1) February (2) April (3) August (4) November

  1. The 14.5 MW Universal Biomass (Crop Residues) Power Plant commissioned and

synchronized in 2009 is located in

(1) Washim, Maharashtra. (2) Nellore, Andhra Pradesh.

(3) Sankheda, Gujarat. (4) Muktsar, Punjab.

  1. Which one of the following states is having the maximum Wind Power installed capacity in

India?

(1) Gujarat (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Maharashtra (4) Rajasthan

A/2K16/05 12

  1. Which one of following Wind Parks/Farms is the India’s largest operational onshore wind farm

with its installed capacity of more than 1000 MW?

(1) Jaisalmer Wind Park, Rajasthan

(2) Damanjodi Wind Farm, Odisha

(3) Tuppadahalli Wind Farm, Karnataka

(4) Muppandal Wind Farm, Tamil Nadu

  1. Where did the first meeting of International Steering Committee (ISC) of the International Solar

Alliance take place in December 2015?

(1) New Delhi (2) Paris (3) Davos (4) Brussels

  1. The statement of purpose in a research study should

(1) identify the design of the study.

(2) identify the intent or objective of the study.

(3) specify the type of people to be used in the study.

(4) describe the study.

  1. A key characteristic of past research that guides researchers in new research questions is that

(1) extensive research conclusively and definitively answers research questions.

(2) studies typically generate more research questions than they answer.

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of these

  1. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to do

which of the following?

(1) To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest.

(2) To identify potential methodological problems in the research area.

(3) To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest.

(4) All these

  1. Which of the following is not a type of non-probability sampling?

(1) Snowball sampling. (2) Stratified random sampling.

(3) Quota sampling. (4) Convenience sampling.

  1. In mixed-method research, quantitative and qualitative findings should be

(1) integrated. (2) contained in separate sections.

(3) listed in order of importance. (4) shown fully in appendices.

  1. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan?

(1) Introduction (2) Method (3) Data analysis (4) Discussion

  1. Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually are

(1) very specific and stated prior to beginning the study.

(2) often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and analyzed.

(3) never used.

(4) always stated after the research study has been completed.

  1. The method section of the research plan typically specifies the

(1) research participants.

(2) apparatus, instruments, and materials for the research study.

(3) planned research procedures.

(4) All these

  1. Which of the following is not normally included in a written account of qualitative research?

(1) An introduction, locating the research in its theoretical context.

(2) An explanation of the design of the study.

(3) A discussion of the main findings in relation to the research questions.

(4) A decision to accept or reject the hypothesis.

  1. Which of the following is not an advantage of content analysis?

(1) It allows us to observe otherwise inaccessible populations at first hand.

(2) It is a transparent and easily replicable technique.

(3) It allows us to track changes in media representations over time.

(4) It is non-reactive method.

SECTION-II

(Technical)

  1. The geothermal steam originating from the magma itself is known as

(1) magnetic steam. (2) meteoritic steam.

(3) electromagnetic steam. (4) thermal steam.

  1. An electrochemical conversion device that converts the chemical energy stored in a fuel directly

into electrical energy is called

(1) fuel cell. (2) electric cell. (3) mechanical cell. (4) thermal cell.

  1. Global warming means increase in the average temperature of the

(1) Earth’s atmosphere. (2) oceans. (3) Sun. (4) Both (1) and ( 2)

  1. The United Nations’ (UN) International Day for the Preservation of the ozone layer is celebrated

on ______ every year.

(1) 16th September (2) 5th June (3) 3rd October (4) 31st May

  1. “The shear stress on a fluid element layer is directly proportional to the rate of shear strain”.

This statement is of

(1) Newton’s Law of viscosity. (2) Hooke’s Law.

(3) Joule’s Law of cooling. (4) Joule’s Law of heating.

  1. The closed cycle Magneto Hydro Dynamic(MHD) system works on ________ cycle with inert

carrier gas.

(1) Brayton (2) Carnot (3) Stirling (4) Rankine

  1. Which of the following countries has the largest share of the global proven gas reserve?

(1) Russia (2) China (3) France (4) Germany

  1. Although 80% of the world’s population lives in the developing countries, their energy

consumption amounts to only ___________ of the world’s total energy consumption.

(1) 40% (2) 20% (3) 60% (4) 80%

  1. In the developed countries,

(1) energy consumption levels are high.

(2) living standards are high.

(3) per capita energy consumption is low compared with that of developing countries.

(4) Both (1) and (2)

  1. The world’s average energy consumption per person is equivalent to

(1) 12.2 tonnes of coal. (2) 0.2 tonnes of coal.

(3) 1.2 tonnes of coal. (4) 2.2 tonnes of coal.

  1. India is the _________ largest producer of coal and lignite in the world.

(1) fourth (2) third (3) second (4) tenth

  1. Oil accounts for about __________ of India’s total energy consumption.

(1) 36% (2) 16% (3) 6% (4) 66%

  1. The majority of India’s roughly 5.4 billion barrels in oil reserves are located in

(1) Bombay High and Upper Assam (2) Cambay and Krishna-Godavari.

(3) Kerala, Punjab and U.P. (4) Both (1) and (2)

  1. Nuclear Power contributes to about ________ per cent of electricity generated in India.

(1) 12.4 (2) 25.4 (3) 2.4 (4) 22.4

  1. Energy intensity indicates the development stage of the country. India’s energy intensity is

___________ times of world average.

(1) 1.5 (2) 4.5 (3) 7.5 (4) 10.5

  1. The objective(s) of the Electricity Act, 2003 is/are

(1) Constitution of Central Electricity Authority.

(2) Non-Rationalization of electricity tariff.

(3) ensuring transparent policies regarding subsidies, promotion of efficient and

environmentally benign policies.

(4) Both (1) and (3)

  1. The graphite or heavy water in the nuclear reactor reduces the

(1) speed of the neutron to a critical value. (2) number of neutrons.

(3) speed of the protons to a critical value. (4) number of protons.

  1. Which of the following is true?

(1) 1 Exajoules (EJ) = 1018 J (2) 1 Exajoules (EJ) = 1015 J

(3) 1 Exajoules (EJ) = 1012 J (4) 1 Exajoules (EJ) = 1010 J

  1. The energy consumption by the poor, rural households in India is mainly in the form of

firewood for cooking. The average consumption norm is 1 kg/person/day. The per capita power

consumption in watts, assuming a calorific value of 3600 kcal/kg for the firewood will be ___.

(1) 120 W (2) 175 W (3) 200 W (4) 140 W

  1. Combustion of Bio-Mass takes place at

(1) the same temperature as that of photosynthesis.

(2) lower temperature than that of photosynthesis.

(3) higher temperature of about 20 times for the photosynthesis.

(4) higher temperature of about two times for the photosynthesis.

  1. Briquetting means

(1) conversion of solid biomass into low density liquid fuel.

(2) densification of loose biomass into high volume to weight ratio fuel.

(3) densification of loose biomass into high density solid fuel.

(4) All these

  1. Which of the following is true?

(1) Floating drum type digester has less cost as compared to fixed dome type.

(2) Floating drum type digester has fixed pressure.

(3) Fixed dome type digester has also fixed pressure.

(4) Fixed dome type digester does not face corrosion trouble.

  1. Which of the following are correct components of the biogas produced from anaerobic

fermentation?

(1) CH4 and N2 (2) CH4 and H2S (3) CH4 and CO2 (4) CH4 and Cl2

  1. Wind energy transferred to the large sea surface is stored in waves as

(1) thermal energy. (2) heat energy.

(3) mechanical energy. (4) geothermal energy.

  1. Difference between water elevation at high tide and water elevation at low tide is known as

(1) Tidal Range. (2) Tidal height. (3) Tidal wavelength. (4) Tidal span.

  1. The rate at which solar energy arrives at the top of the atmosphere is called

(1) solar constant. (2) energy flux. (3) energy density. (4) All these

  1. Which of the following resources are also called petro-thermal resources?

(1) Hot dry rock (2) Geothermal brine

(3) Geothermal steam (4) Geothermal hot water

  1. In a fuel cell, hydrogen is converted into

(1) hydrogen ions and water. (2) oxygen ions and water.

(3) hydrogen ions and CO2. (4) water and CO2.

  1. Which of the following is true?

(1) The temperature in low temperature fuel cell is about 90°C.

(2) The temperature in low temperature fuel cell is about 27°C.

(3) The pressure in high temperature fuel cell is about 5 bar.

(4) The pressure in high temperature fuel cell is about 15 bar.

(1) 90 k Wh/sq m. (2) 190 k Wh/sq m. (3) 115 k Wh/sq m. (4) 150 k Wh/sq m.

A/2K16/05 23

  1. During winter

(1) northern hemisphere is tilted away from the sun.

(2) northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun.

(3) reduction in the CO2 concentration world wide.

(4) green leaves come out on trees.

  1. Which of the following may be consequence of Global warming?

(1) Melting of ice caps (2) Increased intensity of storms and cyclones

(3) Glacier retreat (4) All these

  1. Green plant and algae

(1) produce their own food with sunlight. (2) store oxygen.

(3) are also known as heterotrophic. (4) do not produce their own food.

  1. According to Lindemann’s Ten percent law, during the transfer of organic food from one

trophic level to the next, only about __________ of the organic matter is stored and remaining

_________ is lost.

(1) 10%, 90% (2) 90%, 10% (3) 70%, 30% (4) 20%, 80%

  1. Which of the following pollutant reduces oxygen carrying capacity of blood?

(1) CO (2) NO2

(3) NO (4) Peroxy Acyl Nitrate

  1. Which of the following is used to filter out the particulate pollutant of size 0.5 μm?

(1) Gravitational setting chamber (2) Cyclone separators

(3) Bag house filter (4) Spray towers

  1. The amount of oxygen required by microbes to breakdown a certain amount of organic matter is

called

(1) Biochemical Oxygen Demand. (2) Biological Oxygen Demand.

(3) Biochemical Oxygen Deficiency. (4) Biological Oxygen Deficiency.

  1. According to Bureau of Energy efficiency, the 5 star building must consume energy less than

(1) 90 k Wh/sq m. (2) 190 k Wh/sq m. (3) 115 k Wh/sq m. (4) 150 k Wh/sq m.

  1. The cumulative radiative forcing both direct and indirect effects over a specified time horizon,

resulting from the emission of a unit mass of a gas related to a reference gas is called

(1) green house emission. (2) global warming potential.

(3) global emission potential. (4) global index factor.

  1. If the global average CO2 concentration is 400 ppm, then total amount of carbon in the

atmosphere will be

(1) 212 Giga ton of carbon. (2) 424 Giga ton of carbon.

(3) 636 Giga ton of carbon. (4) 848 Giga ton of carbon.

  1. Kinematic viscosity is the ratio between dynamic viscosity and

(1) density of the fluid. (2) volume of the fluid.

(3) mass of the fluid. (4) specific weight of the fluid.

  1. Two horizontal plates are placed 1.75 cm apart, the space between them filled with the oil of

viscosity 20 poises. The shear stress in the oil if the upper plate is moved with a velocity of 3.5

m/s will be _________.

(1) 400 Nm2 (2) 400 N/m (3) 400 N/m2 (4) 200 N/m2

  1. The fluid motion is described by two methods namely

(1) Lagrangian method and Newtonian Method.

(2) Newtonian method and Eulerian Method.

(3) Lagrangian method and Eulerian Method.

(4) Lagrangian method and Galilean Method.

  1. For a fluid flowing through a pipe at all cross-sections, the quantity of the fluid per second is

constant. This is called

(1) Flow equation. (2) Continuity equation.

(3) Equation of motion. (4) Euler equation.

  1. The electrical parameters of the Photo Voltaic (PV) modules in the data sheet are given under

standard conditions. These conditions are

(1) Temperature of 15°C and Air Mass (AM) of 1.5 m/s.

(2) Temperature of 25°C and Air Mass (AM) of 1 m/s.

(3) Temperature of 25°C and Air Mass (AM) of 2.5 m/s.

(4) Temperature of 25°C and Air Mass (AM) of 1.5 m/s.

  1. The air mass of 1.5 (AM1.5) represents the condition in which solar radiation is ________.

(1) 1000 W/m2 (2) 1300 W/m2 (3) 1350 W/m2 (4) 2000 W/m2

  1. The PV cell output

(1) increases with increase in temperature.

(2) doubles with every 5°C rise in temperature.

(3) triples with every 10°C rise in temperature.

(4) decreases with increase in temperature.

  1. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) Voltage source inverter cannot operate at no load.

(2) Voltage source inverter can operate at no load.

(3) Current source inverter can operate in open loop.

(4) Voltage source inverter cannot operate in open loop.

  1. In wind energy conversion system, the Tip Speed Ratio is

(1) the ratio of blade tip speed to the wind speed and its value is 5 to 9 for high speed wind turbine.

(2) the ratio of wind speed to blade tip speed.

(3) 2 to 4 for high speed wind turbine.

(4) the ratio of wind speed to blade tip speed and its value is 5 to 9 for high speed wind turbine.

  1. The ____________ determines the rate at which non-uniform temperature distribution

approaches the equilibrium condition.

(1) Thermal diffusivity (2) Boltzmann constant

(3) Bose Einstein distribution (4) Inversion temperature

  1. In general, an increase in the temperature causes

(1) increase in the thermal conductivity of the gas and solid.

(2) decrease in the thermal conductivity of the gas and solid.

(3) increase in the thermal conductivity of the gas and decrease in case of solid.

(4) decrease in the thermal conductivity of the gas and increase in case of solid.

  1. According to Wein’s displacement law lmT = C , the value of C is ________.

(1) 2897.6 μm K (2) 1493 μm K (3) 0.0552 μm K (4) 5.6697 μm K

  1. According to the phase rule, the number of components(C), number of phases(P) and number of

degrees of freedom(F) are related as __________.

(1) F = –C + P + 2 (2) F = C – P + 1 (3) F = C + P + 2 (4) F = C – P + 2

  1. Energy–GDP elasticity is defined as % growth in energy requirement for ____ growth in

national GDP.

(1) 1% (2) 10% (3) 5% (4) 2%

  1. Cogeneration is simultaneous generation of

(1) electricity and steam or hot water. (2) electricity and oil.

(3) electric and mechanical energy. (4) electric and kinetic energy.

  1. With cogeneration, the efficiency of the fuel utilization can be increased up to _________.

(1) 90% (2) 80% (3) 60% (4) 75%

  1. The ‘hard path’ in Lovin’s Paradigm denotes

(1) highly centralized and sustained expansion of energy expansion to meet a growing demand

and inefficient use of energy.

(2) decentralized system with power to people.

(3) developing solar power rather than coal and nuclear.

(4) aiming the technical simplicity rather than technical complexity.

  1. Which of the following is directly measurable for individual material?

(1) Peltier coefficient (2) Seeback coefficient

(3) Both Seeback and Peltier coefficient (4) Thomson coefficient

  1. The Special Area Demonstration Project Scheme of the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy

of India has been introduced with the objective of

(1) demonstrating application of various renewable energy systems in a project mode at places

of national and international importance including world heritage sites.

(2) demonstrating application of various renewable energy systems in a project mode at heritage

monuments.

(3) act as a facilitator for improving the skill sets of professionals and executives in the

renewable energy industry.

(4) Both (1) and (2)

  1. The direct sunlight radiation is measured with

(1) heliometers. (2) Pythogoras meters.

(3) Pyrheliometers. (4) Sphygmomanometer.

  1. The solar energy constant

(1) varies inversely with the fourth power of an object’s distance from the Sun’s surface.

(2) is higher for Earth than for Mars.

(3) is the same throughout the solar system.

(4) is independent of the Stefan-Boltzmann law.

  1. On an average, the atmosphere absorbs roughly _____ of the solar radiation that reaches the top

of the atmosphere.

(1) 25 percent (2) 14 percent (3) 5 percent (4) 50 percent

  1. Why does only approximately half of the solar energy emitted towards the Earth ever arrive at

the surface?

(1) The rest is lost in transit through the vacuum of space.

(2) The rest is lost because the speed of the light is slower in the atmosphere than in the

vacuum.

(3) The rest is absorbed by the atmosphere or reflected into space.

(4) The rest is refracted through the atmosphere.

  1. The rate at which temperature decreases with increasing altitude is known as the

(1) temperature slope. (2) lapse rate. (3) sounding. (4) thermocline.

  1. Geothermal energy reservoirs are

(1) liquid dominated reservoirs. (2) steam dominated reservoirs.

(3) hot rocks with no water. (4) All these

  1. Fuel reforming is a process of

(1) transforming fossil fuel into CO.

(2) transforming fossil fuel into H2.

(3) removing carbon compounds from fossil fuel.

(4) None of these

  1. Gasification of biomass is a

(1) biochemical conversion process. (2) chemical conversion process.

(3) thermochemical conversion process. (4) biological conversion process.

  1. Biomass gasifiers produce a combustible mixture of different gases called ____ gas.

(1) producer (2) internal (3) mixed (4) combustion

  1. Wind machine with Darrious type of rotor is a

(1) vertical axis machine.

(2) horizontal axis machine.

(3) machine that can spin in one direction only.

(4) None of these

  1. The main disadvantage of wind power is that

(1) it is available only in coastal areas.

(2) wind energy systems are noisy when in operation.

(3) large land area is required.

(4) the capacity utilization is less.

  1. Which one of the following solar cookers is the most efficient and has the shortest cooking

time?

(1) Box cooker. (2) Parabolic cooker. (3) Panel cooker. (4) None of these

  1. The electrical output of a solar cell depends on the

(1) intensity of solar radiation. (2) heat component of solar radiation.

(3) ultraviolet radiation. (4) infrared radiation.

  1. The value of solar constant is approximately ___________.

(1) 6.5 kW/m2 (2) 1.36 kW/m2 (3) 3.64 kW/m2 (4) 10 kW/m2

  1. In a box type solar cooker, the solar radiations that enter and leave the box are of

(1) short & long wavelength respectively. (2) long & short wavelength respectively.

(3) similar wavelengths. (4) None of these

  1. Solar radiation that has not been absorbed or scattered and reaches the earth surface directly is

called

(1) Beam radiation. (2) Scattered radiation.

(3) Diffused radiation. (4) None of these

  1. The total solar radiation received at any point on the earth’s surface is termed as

(1) Insulation. (2) Insolation. (3) Radiation. (4) Insulated radiation.

  1. Which two physical properties allow a mixture to be separated by chromatography?

(1) Hardness and boiling point. (2) Density and specific heat capacity.

(3) Malleability and thermal conductivity. (4) Solubility and molecular polarity.

  1. An oxidation-reduction reaction involves the

(1) sharing of electrons. (2) sharing of protons.

(3) transfer of electrons. (4) transfer of protons.

  1. Which of the following methods can be called passive solar energy collection?

(1) Using heat absorbing construction materials.

(2) Rooftop solar panels.

(3) OTEC.

(4) None of these

  1. To maintain the refracted image focused on a receiver that is fixed with respect to the lens, the

_____ or any other lens system requires at least one single-axis tracking system to keep the

incident light rays normal to the lens aperture.

(1) Heliostats (2) Fresnel collector

(3) CPC collector (4) Evacuated tube solar collectors

A/2K16/05 34

  1. Single crystal silicon is the most efficient because

(1) it is the non-crystalline form of silicon where atoms are arranged in a relatively haphazard

way.

(2) the crystal is free of grain boundaries, which are defects in the same crystal structure caused

by variations in the lattice that tend to decrease the electrical and thermal conductivity of the

material.

(3) it has obvious grain boundaries; the portions of single crystals are visible to the naked eye.

(4) it has the lowest power conversion efficiencies and is least expensive to produce.

  1. ____ is the interface that occurs between two layers or regions of dissimilar crystalline

semiconductors.

(1) Band gap (2) Heterojunction

(3) Polycrystalline silicon (4) Amorphous silicon

  1. Which of the following statements is False?

(1) One of the simplest and most effective methods of solar energy system sizing is to take a

look at solar energy system efficiencies.

(2) The energy required from a solar energy system is roughly doubled from array nameplate

rating for off-grid systems with battery storage and drops one-quarter for grid tied systems.

(3) Grid-tied systems are more forgiving in that even if the solar energy system is undersized,

the user will never notice because the grid will be supplying any power shortfall

(4) None of these

  1. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is affected when steam is extracted

(1) from only one suitable point of steam turbine.

(2) from several places in different stages of steam turbine.

(3) only from the last stage of steam turbine.

(4) only from the first stage of steam turbine.

  1. In a shell and tube surface condenser

(1) steam and cooling water mix to give the condensate.

(2) cooling water passes through the tubes and steam surrounds them.

(3) steam passes through the cooling tubes and cooling water surrounds them.

(4) None of these

  1. The advantage(s) of Lead-Calcium batteries is/are

(1) calcium adds strength to lead.

(2) calcium reduces gassing and loss of water (higher electrolysis threshold).

(3) low self-discharge rate.

(4) All these

  1. What is the wavelength at which the maximum monochromatic emission occurs for a star

behaving as a blackbody at 8000 K?

(1) 360 nm (2) 362 nm (3) 263 nm (4) 262 nm

  1. India has an estimated renewable energy potential of about ________ from commercially

exploitable sources.

(1) 900 GW (2) 875 GW (3) 925 GW (4) 950 GW

  1. India occupies the _______ position in the world with a wind power installed capacity of 22.5

GW.

(1) third (2) fourth (3) fifth (4) sixth

  1. Which of the following activities has/have been initiated at NISE during 2014-15?

(1) Upgradation of SPV module test facility. (2) Up-gradation of solar cell test facility.

(3) Expansion of battery test facility. (4) All these

  1. As per the Indian Wind Atlas, the on-shore wind power potential has been estimated as _______

at 50 m height.

(1) 48,110 MW (2) 47,130 MW (3) 49,130 MW (4) 49,700 MW

  1. The potential for power generation from agricultural and agro-industrial residues is estimated at

about __________.

(1) 18,000 MW (2) 17,500 MW (3) 18,500 MW (4) 18,750 MW

  1. In India, Hydro power projects up to capacity of _______ are classified as Small Hydro.

(1) 24 MW (2) 25 MW (3) 23 MW (4) 26 MW

  1. MNRE is providing financial assistance in the form of grants / subsidy under which of the

following schemes / activities?

(1) Resource assessment and support for identification of new sites.

(2) Scheme to support for setting up new SHP projects in the private / cooperative / joint sector

etc.

(3) Scheme to support for setting up new SHP projects in the Government Sector.

(4) All these

A/2K16/05 38

  1. The main component(s) of the biomass gasifier programmes is/are

(1) distributed / off-grid power for rural areas.

(2) captive power generation applications in rice mills and other industries.

(3) tail end grid connected power projects up to 2 MW capacities.

(4) All these

  1. A 100 LPD Solar Water Heating (SWH) System having 2 square meter of collector area, can

replace an electric geyser of ________ kW capacity for residential use.

(1) 3 (2) 3.5 (3) 2 (4) 2.5

  1. The gross potential for solar water heating systems in India has been estimated at __________

million sq. m. of collector area.

(1) 135 (2) 140 (3) 145 (4) 150

  1. A National Centre for Photovoltaic Research and Education at _____________ was set up in

2010.

(1) IIT-Chennai (2) IIT-Delhi (3) IIT-Bombay (4) IIT-Kolkata

  1. National Biogas and Manure Management Programme (NBMMP) provides for setting up of

Family Type Biogas Plants mainly for rural and semi-urban households, with a salient objective

to help in the mitigation and combating climate change by preventing emission of Green House

Gases (GHGs) such as __________ and methane into the atmosphere.

(1) nitrogen (2) ozone (3) carbon monoxide (4) carbon dioxide

  1. The MNRE has raised budgetary support to __________ for R&D during the 12th Plan Period

with continued emphasis on cost reduction and efficiency improvement.

(1) 980 crore (2) 900 crore (3) 920 crore (4) 950 crore

  1. Ground Source Heat Pumps (GSHP’s) use the earth’s relatively constant temperature between

16-24°C at a depth of ____ feet to provide heating, cooling, and hot water for homes and commercial buildings.

  • 15 (2) 20 (3) 18 (4) 22

 

Answers Key

Q1 1

Q2 4

Q3 1

Q4 2

Q5 3

Q6 1

Q7 1

Q8 2

Q9 3

Q10 2

Q11 2

Q12 1

Q13 3

Q14 4

Q15 1

Q16 2

Q17 4

Q18 2

Q19 2

Q20 1

Q21 1

3

Q23 1

Q24 3

Q25 2

Q26 1

Q27 2

Q28 2

Q29 4

Q30 1

Q31 3

Q32 2

Q33 2

Q34 4

Q35 3

Q36 1

Q37 4

Q38 2

Q39 1

Q40 2

Q41 2

Q42 2

Q43 4

Q44 2

Q45 1

Q46 2

Q47 2

Q48 4

Q49 4

Q50 1

Q51 1

Q52 1

Q53 4

Q54 1

Q55 1

Q56 1

Q57 1

Q58 1

Q59 4

Q60 4

Q61 1

Q62 1

Q63 4

Q64 3

Q65 1

Q66 4

Q67 1

Q68 1

Q69 2

Q70 3

Q71 3

Q72 2

Q73 3

Q74 3

Q75 1

Q76 1

Q77 1

Q78 1

Q79 1

Q80 1

Q81 4

Q82 1

Q83 1

Q84 1

Q85 3

Q86 1

Q87 1

Q88 2

Q89 4

Q90 1

Q91 3

Q92 3

Q93 2

Q94 4

Q95 1

Q96 4

Q97 2

Q98 1

Q99 1

Q100 3

Q101 1

Q102 4

Q103 1

Q104 1

Q105 3

Q106 1

Q107 4

Q108 4

Q109 3

Q110 2

Tagged with: , , , ,